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posted ago by LetMeBeFrank ago by LetMeBeFrank +11 / -0

Can the fact that Biden's vote tallies violate Benford's law be used as evidence in court? I'm not talking about it being the sole evidence, but just another thing that bolsters the argument. Like "not only did they do this, this and this, not only is this against the law, not only is this suspicious, but these votes also go against Benford's law". Is that viable?

Comments (6)
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nuhbin 4 points ago +4 / -0

it's the investigators equivalent of "probable cause"

it'll lead them to where the fuckery happened, but only an audit or hand recount can show that the numbers were fudged by showing the ballots are missing

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InIt4TheData 3 points ago +3 / -0

No. It can support the need to look into certain counties or states for fraud, but just benford's law is not evidence of who was committing the fraud. For example. If you apply benford's law to traditionally blue states, it shows a low level of fraud on the republican side. This could mean either Republicans are trying to add votes in in blue states fraudulently, OR that Republican votes are being fraudulently repressed. Benford's law can't say which.

Hope that was clear?

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escapeefromMA 2 points ago +2 / -0

Sounds like it can only be used in an opening or closing arguments. I think it is considered conjecture. But I am not a lawyer.

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bellcurvestrikesback 2 points ago +2 / -0

Already in court filings

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CleanYourRoom 1 point ago +2 / -1

I imagine it would be admitted as expert testimony, from someone qualified.