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posted ago by Constantine2000 ago by Constantine2000 +19 / -1

Republicans had a very nice showing in the the House, Senate, and at the state level, so if this voting machine debacle is true and thousands of votes throughout all the states have flipped votes from Trump to Biden... why wasn't this the same case for other candidates on those ballots?

Is this because of voting machines being used primarily in areas where House/Senate seats weren't up for grabs? I'm asking because I haven't compared where these machines were used to the districts where other candidates were up for re-election. Anyone know?

Comments (7)
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lamontbond 3 points ago +3 / -0

Because they didn't want to rig 500 elections and have 500 additional candidates other than trump screaming for recounts.

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mob1104 3 points ago +3 / -0

Because “republicans” aren’t the problem for the globalist pieces of shit..... most of them are in on it too. Trump is the only one that can fuck their plans up

2
DonutATX 2 points ago +2 / -0

Because the fraudsters were incompetent and lazy. They could not be bothered to model the town ticket races. This is why there are so many "Biden only" ballots.

1
undecidedmask 1 point ago +1 / -0

They were betting on massive anti-trump numbers. Instead trump got way more votes than they expected, so they are just ignoring the fact that Republicans won tons of house seats and held other spots.

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UndercoverSpez 1 point ago +1 / -0

Heard it argued that fraud is much easier to spot and prove in local elections. That's why the "RepubIican" allegation going around only affected Trump.

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Greenetarpaulin 1 point ago +1 / -0

All house seats were up. Consider all the Biden only ballots.

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handpeople 1 point ago +1 / -0

Well, they found interference in 2018 with vote flipping in KY, and it was on the candidate level, not the whole ballot options as a whole. Seems one individual races can be flipped.