If US Code defines election day as "The Tuesday next after the 1st Monday in November" - why haven't lawsuits been filed in every state asking that all ballots received after 11:59:59 PM on election day be invalidated?
Is there some precedent I'm unaware of that extends election day? Didn't Alito tell PA to segregate late arriving ballots for this very reason? #StopTheSteal
Maybe because what they are doing it not meant to be public knowledge. If I was launching an attack on the greatest threat to humanity, I wouldn't broadcast in on the internet beforehand either.