So the linked article claims that: "The election code mandates that those wishing to vote by absentee ballots may apply for a mail-in ballot “not more than 180 days” prior to the election."
Is this "code" they reference part of legislative law or an enforcement code set by the Secretary of State/Governor? SCOTUS has upheld that a state must comply with their own election laws and constitution when conducting election. If this "code" that states they must not apply for mail-in ballots was set by legislative law I believe this case will be strong. If, however, it was just an enforcement code I don't know that it will stand, as the Supreme Court has already ruled in the recent Wisconsin case that only the legislature has the right to regulate election law.
more importantly - how can you tell which ballots were of the 305k? and is the appropriate remedy for the people that voted in good faith to eliminate their vote?
So the linked article claims that: "The election code mandates that those wishing to vote by absentee ballots may apply for a mail-in ballot “not more than 180 days” prior to the election."
Is this "code" they reference part of legislative law or an enforcement code set by the Secretary of State/Governor? SCOTUS has upheld that a state must comply with their own election laws and constitution when conducting election. If this "code" that states they must not apply for mail-in ballots was set by legislative law I believe this case will be strong. If, however, it was just an enforcement code I don't know that it will stand, as the Supreme Court has already ruled in the recent Wisconsin case that only the legislature has the right to regulate election law.
more importantly - how can you tell which ballots were of the 305k? and is the appropriate remedy for the people that voted in good faith to eliminate their vote?