I keep seeing people point to lack of standing in this case meaning that the harm hasn't occured yet but the very statement issued by SCOTUS says as reasoning that they have no interest in how other states conduct their elections. That's not saying harm hasn't occurred yet they're saying Texas cannot claim harm from another states unconstitutional actions, what am I missing?
I keep seeing people point to lack of standing in this case meaning that the harm hasn't occured yet but the very statement issued by SCOTUS says as reasoning that they have no interest in how other states conduct their elections. That's not saying harm hasn't occurred yet they're saying Texas cannot claim harm from another states unconstitutional actions, what am I missing?
I think they created that reason because they were too cowardly to take the case