Texas filed the lawsuit under article 2, why did SCOTUS dismiss it under article 3?
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It's crazy, article III literally reads "The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority; to Controversies between two or more States
Yeah, the denial is a big stinking pile of horseshit and we all know it.
Article 3 is The Court, not the referenced complaint Article.
I'm not a lawyer pede but this is my take. They were arguing the Defendant states violated Article 2 but in order for Texas to be able to even bring a case they need to meet the requirements for standing under article 3. Some people are saying when they refer to article 3 they may be talking about section 3 which is about the charge of treason but I don't see how that makes sense
Thanks! That makes more sense
Because they found legal precedent
https://thedonald.win/p/11R4Nq4L8m/original-legal-precedent-not-col/c/
That was my first thought reading it too