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posted ago by A_Discord_Moderator ago by A_Discord_Moderator +245 / -2

Lawyer pedes have tried explaining this, but I think they're over-complicating. I'll break it down short and sweet.

The 4 defendant states have not sent electors to vote for President/VP at all yet, thus the 4 defendant states have NOT affected the Presidency/VP elections at all yet, thus Texas has not been affected by the elections held in those 4 states, thus Texas has no standing to sue.

That's it, it's very simple.

Lawsuits can't go "We want to sue the defendant for something they are most likely to due in the near future." Doesn't work like that.

SCOTUS is there to be as by-the-book and lawful as possible, and they absolutely 100% made the correct decision in this case, we CANNOT TELL BY THIS DECISION IF THE REPUBLICAN SCOTUS MEMBERS ARE COMPROMISED/GLOBALIST, SO CHILL OUT WITH THAT. WE. DON'T. KNOW.

It begs the question, why did they make such a FANTASTIC lawsuit, and they KNEW it would be shut down due to lack of standing? They KNEW this would happen, it's extraordinarily simple, Texas clearly has not been affected yet. Are they going to re-file after electors vote (if possible)? Why did they not wait until that time (the CORRECT time), to do so? Are "the plan" pedes thinking distraction play? Dunno.

Just remember, 4 days ago before this Texas case even existed, we were pretty optimistic, now everyone is grabbing their guns and screaming. Chill, the fug, out. SCOTUS should not be labelled as a total corrupt loss just yet, they made the lawful call.

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yacsb 3 points ago +3 / -0

Clarence Thomas always votes the right way. So I don't believe this no standing argument. Thomas is all about the constitution. If he voted yes, then all the other Republicans should have voted YES.