Since Texas “didn’t have standing,” would filing that same lawsuit as The People have standing? As in if Americans everywhere were to sign on? Or how about if citizens of each of those states filed against their own state? We/They were obviously injured by the States’ actions on what was done with the election. The lawsuit can include just the UnConstitutional arguments as Texas had without it being state vs state. Then wouldn’t a lawsuit for the fraud have standing as well by The People?
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I'm confused. I heard part of the reason Texas' case was rejected is because there was no injury yet. So why wouldn't Texas itself refile?
Pennsylvania’s Supreme Court pulled that “too late” bullshit so they were probably avoiding that with the big guys, but I do see that making sense if it’s possible for them to refile it