posted ago by GodBless ago by GodBless +7 / -0

Since Texas “didn’t have standing,” would filing that same lawsuit as The People have standing? As in if Americans everywhere were to sign on? Or how about if citizens of each of those states filed against their own state? We/They were obviously injured by the States’ actions on what was done with the election. The lawsuit can include just the UnConstitutional arguments as Texas had without it being state vs state. Then wouldn’t a lawsuit for the fraud have standing as well by The People?

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FreedomFromGovt 2 points ago +2 / -0

I would've thought that if Georgia's malfeasance was contained to Georgia, alone, then Texas would have had no standing. But its fraud had a wider impact because other states were denied Equal Protection.