Number of doctor's office visits of vaccinated vs unvaccinated patients - from the Study: Relative Incidence of Office Visits and Cumulative Rates of Billed Diagnoses Along the Axis of Vaccination - https://www.mdpi.com/1660-4601/17/22/8674
(childrenshealthdefense.org)
posted ago by Starxteel
+52 / -0
Oh huh.
I thought that that graph was misleading because the number of patients was different between the two groups, but nope, this is after adjusting for that.
(emp. added)
One thing that is missing from said graphs that would be interesting is, well, the intended targets. Namely, the same graphs for the specific diseases that the vaccines in question were targeted for.
I'd still say the difference is likely because a person who avoids vaccination is less likely to go to a doctor for any reason, especially not conditions that lack physical symptoms like adhd
That is an interesting and plausible cofounder.
Any ideas how to compensate for that? (Barring e.g. life expectancy... which given DOB >2008 will take quite a while to become apparent.)
I don't think there is a surefire way to account for that.
Unfortunately, I suspect you are correct.
Twin studies are the classic response there, but even they have issues.
Adhd... they have fucked up entire generations of men
https://www.mdpi.com/1660-4601/17/22/8674
Thank you kindly for the link in clickable form.