Not seeing what you are seeing. He can either pocket it, which he won't, or Veto it, where they will just override the Veto.
The other exception is to where the bill originated (not sure which chamber wrote this piece of shit). If it were proposed by the Senate, then it is still valid because this is not raising revenue, it is about spending/raiding the coffers.
The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
US Constitution Article 1, Section 7, after the first paragraph, meaning it is a separate clause.
Every Bill which shall have passed the House of Representatives and the Senate, shall, before it become a Law, be presented to the President of the United States; If he approve he shall sign it, but if not he shall return it, with his Objections to that House in which it shall have originated, who shall enter the Objections at large on their Journal, and proceed to reconsider it. If after such Reconsideration two thirds of that House shall agree to pass the Bill, it shall be sent, together with the Objections, to the other House, by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and if approved by two thirds of that House, it shall become a Law.
Not seeing what you are seeing. He can either pocket it, which he won't, or Veto it, where they will just override the Veto.
The other exception is to where the bill originated (not sure which chamber wrote this piece of shit). If it were proposed by the Senate, then it is still valid because this is not raising revenue, it is about spending/raiding the coffers.
It is about raising revenue because hidden in the 5000 pages there are mentions of where the revenue is derived.
So this bill originated in the Senate? It is a Senate sponsored bill?
Originated in Senate, House threw in where funds are derived.
Ahhh. Thanks, Pede. I see you point.
The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
US Constitution Article 1, Section 7, after the first paragraph, meaning it is a separate clause.
Every Bill which shall have passed the House of Representatives and the Senate, shall, before it become a Law, be presented to the President of the United States; If he approve he shall sign it, but if not he shall return it, with his Objections to that House in which it shall have originated, who shall enter the Objections at large on their Journal, and proceed to reconsider it. If after such Reconsideration two thirds of that House shall agree to pass the Bill, it shall be sent, together with the Objections, to the other House, by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and if approved by two thirds of that House, it shall become a Law.