The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
It is about raising revenue because hidden in the 5000 pages there are mentions of where the revenue is derived.
So this bill originated in the Senate? It is a Senate sponsored bill?
Originated in Senate, House threw in where funds are derived.
Ahhh. Thanks, Pede. I see you point.
The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
I will have to research more.