The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
Ahhh. Thanks, Pede. I see you point.
The only remaining question is this: has some statute, law, or Constitutional Amendment been passed since 1789 that states the House can amend a Senate bill appropriations bill, thus, allowing the Senate to vicariously raise revenue; or is it somewhere written that any House amendment to a Semate Bill (and vice versa) allows for House rules, i.e., raising revenue, to automatically apply?
Regardless, they are all sneky sneks and need to hang imho.
I will have to research more.