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CalMagaMan 3 points ago +3 / -0

Why go to a corrupt court when you already know the power you have? The court can only rule against your power, muddy the water; and further complicate what you need to do.

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Trumpaholic831 2 points ago +2 / -0

This!

I never followed the logic of suing for powers already granted. Only opens the door to have them usurped by corrupt judges

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two_womps 2 points ago +2 / -0

It's a canary in the coal mine.

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7_17_24 2 points ago +2 / -0

Attorney Leigh Dundas put out a very informative video on “The Power of Pence”, as outlined in the Constitution, and she describes cases that have set precedent.

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tdwinner2020 1 point ago +1 / -0

What part of "the relief that plaintiffs request does not properly lie against the Vice President" do you not understand?

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XxZ3AL0TxX -1 points ago +3 / -4

Doesn't sound like shit. He won't do shit.

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Pirate_Lafitte 2 points ago +2 / -0

in your opinion he doesn't have the power. Some legal scholars disagree with you. With onerwhelming evidence of fraud and over 100 congressmen and senators contesting, he has the cover to just do it and let the chips fall where they may. It's certainly what modern dems would do

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FairElection 4 points ago +4 / -0

Honestly if we can have votes being counted in the middle of the night with no supervision, and if PA can have more votes than published voters this year, why not pence count the votes and discard some, or count others twice?

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thunderstorm 6 points ago +6 / -0

It's what Jefferson did.

No, what Nixon did was even more brazen. He counted electoral votes that likely had no certification over electoral votes that had full certification.

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mangled_viper 1 point ago +1 / -0

This is incorrect. There was no competing slate of electors during Jefferson's 1800 election. What happened was GA's certificate of electors was found to be somewhat deficient. Jefferson counted them anyway - without any objection from Congress.

In the case of Nixon, the Governor certified both Republican and Democratic electors. First, the Republican slate. After a court-mandated recount found that Kennedy won, the Governor certified the Democratic electors. Nixon, in fact, counted certified electoral votes. If he did count the Republican votes, Congress has the right to object to it.

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thunderstorm 1 point ago +1 / -0

This is incorrect. There was no competing slate of electors during Jefferson's 1800 election. What happened was GA's certificate of electors was found to be somewhat deficient. Jefferson counted them anyway - without any objection from Congress.

Jefferson counted the votes without regard of Congress at all.

In the case of Nixon, the Governor certified both Republican and Democratic electors. First, the Republican slate. After a court-mandated recount found that Kennedy won, the Governor certified the Democratic electors. Nixon, in fact, counted certified electoral votes. If he did count the Republican votes, Congress has the right to object to it.

There was no signed certificate for JFK slate. The certificate sent out was from the Democratic electors, not the governor.

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BuffaloReaper94 12 points ago +13 / -1

I’m more than a little tired of hearing that everything someone doesn’t like is “ceremonial.” Do you think the founding fathers sat around forming a brand-new form of gov’t and jerked themselves off with a bunch of meaningless shit? He presides over the Senate. He’s not the fucking grand marshal of the electoral college parade. What exactly will happen and the aftermath are anyone’s guess, but “He’s just ceremonial” is what CNN shills say when they manage to take the cock out of their mouth long enough.

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