The region had been part of Germany since 1795. Between 1919 and 1938 the area was a complete shitshow in terms of border disputes and takeovers (including some perpetrated by the newly independent Poland again other states).
USSR and Germany invaded Poland in 1939 and split it. Yet the British and French only declared war on Germany. And after World War II USSR got to keep the entire thing despite having absolutely zero historical claim to it. Funny how that works.
And I'm not even going to comment on the "genocide". I can't believe people here unironically call themselves redpilled while still falling for this soviet propaganda.
No. The two had an agreement that was violated by the USSR. Stalin was confidence he could take all of Germany with the help of the Allies. Congratulations on helping him take 3/4 of Europe.
France
When did Germany claim ownership of France? They declared war on Germany and were subsequently occupied for it. Were they expected not to fight back?
Africa
I don't know much about their African ambitions. But considering how much of it Britain owned should we assume that Britain also wanted to "take over zee world"?
Germany declared war on USSR first. And Stalin didnt take 3/4 of Europe, it was like 1/2. Also Europe was split by Churchill and Stalin in the Yalta conference and no superpower stand up for those countries that had no choice. They made a deal which countries they would have influence on, Stalin didnt just take them. All sides messed up and thats the result.
About France - ok i guess
About Africa - i have no idea what he was doing there too, i guess he knew he was safe. America and Britain never attacked Germany directly until after USSR turned the tide big time and both Germany and USSR were funded (Germany way more), sounds familliar?
The region had been part of Germany since 1795. Between 1919 and 1938 the area was a complete shitshow in terms of border disputes and takeovers (including some perpetrated by the newly independent Poland again other states).
USSR and Germany invaded Poland in 1939 and split it. Yet the British and French only declared war on Germany. And after World War II USSR got to keep the entire thing despite having absolutely zero historical claim to it. Funny how that works.
And I'm not even going to comment on the "genocide". I can't believe people here unironically call themselves redpilled while still falling for this soviet propaganda.
was the USSR part of Germany? France? Parts of Africa?(Sure he wanted colonies but still)
No. The two had an agreement that was violated by the USSR. Stalin was confidence he could take all of Germany with the help of the Allies. Congratulations on helping him take 3/4 of Europe.
When did Germany claim ownership of France? They declared war on Germany and were subsequently occupied for it. Were they expected not to fight back?
I don't know much about their African ambitions. But considering how much of it Britain owned should we assume that Britain also wanted to "take over zee world"?
Germany declared war on USSR first. And Stalin didnt take 3/4 of Europe, it was like 1/2. Also Europe was split by Churchill and Stalin in the Yalta conference and no superpower stand up for those countries that had no choice. They made a deal which countries they would have influence on, Stalin didnt just take them. All sides messed up and thats the result.
About France - ok i guess
About Africa - i have no idea what he was doing there too, i guess he knew he was safe. America and Britain never attacked Germany directly until after USSR turned the tide big time and both Germany and USSR were funded (Germany way more), sounds familliar?
"take over zee world" - no idea what this is