13 This might be a dumb question, but why hasn’t any county (from say Arizona) sued the county responsible for the fraud on behalf of their citizens, especially where state laws were broken? I know they kept saying “standing”, but a county from one state seems to have standing. posted 39 days ago by commonsenseprevails +13 / -0 3 comments share 3 comments share save hide report block hide child comments Comments (3) sorted by: top new old worst ▲ 1 ▼ – kekler 1 point 39 days ago +1 / -0 to some extent it's a practical matter; it is thought not to be good policy to allow it as all you would have would be counties suing and cross-suing each other over every political, economic, environmental, etc, disagreement. permalink save report block reply ▲ -1 ▼ – Enrd -1 points 39 days ago +1 / -2 That must be because there was no "massive" fraud. Need to accept this so we can get the vote out for the next election. permalink save report block reply ▲ 1 ▼ – GlockArm 1 point 38 days ago +1 / -0 ok handshake permalink parent save report block reply
to some extent it's a practical matter; it is thought not to be good policy to allow it as all you would have would be counties suing and cross-suing each other over every political, economic, environmental, etc, disagreement.
That must be because there was no "massive" fraud. Need to accept this so we can get the vote out for the next election.
ok handshake