I have zero complaints about that exegesis of v7. If we stick to tight exegetical analysis, we won't go in circles.

It's a simple question: the last two Israel references in Rom 10, and in 11:2: those are referring to Jews, right?

And if my theology is so bad, especially as it pertains to Jews, shouldn't you be pleased to have almost three whole chapters about the Jews to show me where I'm in error?

Here's the bit that loads of evangelicals point to to say that God still has a plan for the Jews, and you want to leave it rather than demonstrating our error from text or context? Because I'm pretty confident I can demonstrate yours.