1289
Comments (92)
sorted by:
You're viewing a single comment thread. View all comments, or full comment thread.
8
JoeBidensDementia1 8 points ago +9 / -1

My coworker told me it's because of basic supply and demand.

Not sure how that works since only 4 states are completely reopened? Maybe 5 at this point?

4
deleted 4 points ago +11 / -7
9
Proud_American 9 points ago +9 / -0

Demand is unchanged. Supply is the manufactured issue.

-6
deleted -6 points ago +3 / -9
8
Proud_American 8 points ago +8 / -0

Demand has nothing to do with the banning of fracking. By definition, the supply of oil has been lowered due to the ban. The demand has not wavered which is why the lower supply is raising the price.

Less oil, same demand raises costs. Inversely, if people stopped driving, yet the supply remained constant, the market would be flooded and the price would drop.

This is an artificial change in the supply and demand relationship by fucking with the supply chain. This only works because we are “addicted” to oil which is another way of saying demand is essentially constant.

8
tentigers99 8 points ago +8 / -0

it's all in the name of the bs climate agenda. which is a proven statistical lie.

4
JoeBidensDementia1 4 points ago +4 / -0

statistical lie

You mean racism?

/s

2
deleted 2 points ago +5 / -3
1
tentigers99 1 point ago +1 / -0

I have posted articles on lots of sites including this one. I will repost it here.

3
JoeBidensDementia1 3 points ago +3 / -0

Yes, I agree with you. And, brother, of course I read your comment before supplying my own. I just wanted the world to know how stupid my coworker is.

2
peltast 2 points ago +2 / -0

My coworker told me it's because of basic supply and demand.

Wouldn't closing down the Keystone pipeline artificially limit the supply? Didn't Trump do that, or, am I thinking of somebody else?

1
JoeBidensDementia1 1 point ago +1 / -0

I thought the Keystone pipeline went directly to Europe and was pure profit for the US.

Yes? Maybe?

Or am I thinking about something else?