Can someone explain something to me about this so next time I’m arguing about this I have more ammunition: If he OD’d on Fent why doesn’t it look like an opioid OD would normally appear? My argument was that he likely had a high tolerance and it’s related to that. The person I was arguing was insistent that he was “lucid” and not nodding off/borderline unconscious like you usually see with opioid OD’s.