Diacethylmorphine (heroine) gets mostly metabolized to morphine right after getting to brain. It gets to brain easier and faster that's why it's more potent in the first place.
5ng/ml means 5 nanograms per milliliter. It's a method of indication of the blood concentration.
All it indicates that fentanyl was already metabolized.
I doubt it can be added up but don't quote me on that.
To be perfectly honest, if you want to argue if he really OD'd or not you can't argue it only on toxicology report. He was an addict, had a high tolerance for the substance, so there's that - someone could argue that it wasn't enough for him. The only kinda sure way would be for coroner to show there were no indications of physical damage etc.
Nobody cuts fentanyl with morphine.
If anything it was heroin cut with Fentanyl. (Shows up on tox report as morphine)
Yep, you're right.
Diacethylmorphine (heroine) gets mostly metabolized to morphine right after getting to brain. It gets to brain easier and faster that's why it's more potent in the first place.
Kinda brain fart on my part, ngl
All good. There's some things I wish I didn't know. This is one of them. My 20s were pretty rough lol
You're not alone.
More of us here with that knowledge than you might imagine.
What's the meaning of the 5ng/ml of NORfentanyl? Nobody ever includes that in the OD calculations...
is it a fent metabolite?
What does it's presence indicate?
Does it 'count' toward a fentanyl OD number, i.e., could the defense ADD that to the 11 ng/ml of fentanyl to say "look he SUPER ODd?"
5ng/ml means 5 nanograms per milliliter. It's a method of indication of the blood concentration.
All it indicates that fentanyl was already metabolized.
I doubt it can be added up but don't quote me on that.
To be perfectly honest, if you want to argue if he really OD'd or not you can't argue it only on toxicology report. He was an addict, had a high tolerance for the substance, so there's that - someone could argue that it wasn't enough for him. The only kinda sure way would be for coroner to show there were no indications of physical damage etc.
Does the amount of norfentanyl correspond to an equal amount of fentanyl being metabolized?
I'm not certainly sure. Sources say that 10% of fentanyl goes from the body unchanged.