No??? The obvious explanation for this is that the vaccine protects better against the other strains than it does against the south africa variant. If this were the case, this is exactly what you would see. Infected people in the vaccinated group would see lower prevalence of the variant it protects against and therefore higher prevalence against the variant it doesn't protect against as well.
It's a small sample size, but still, it looks like the Pfizer primed people to be more receptive to infection with a new strain
No??? The obvious explanation for this is that the vaccine protects better against the other strains than it does against the south africa variant. If this were the case, this is exactly what you would see. Infected people in the vaccinated group would see lower prevalence of the variant it protects against and therefore higher prevalence against the variant it doesn't protect against as well.