posted ago by TerraCognita ago by TerraCognita +891 / -0
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– heightnoise 1 point ago +1 / -0
To sublease, a tenant requires the permission of the owner. If the lease is silent as to subletting being prohibited, it is implied. But nonetheless, that implies the prostitute is owned by another if she can "rent" herself out. Plausible only if you assume that some kind of pimp owns the prostitute, in which case thats slavery, and otherwise that's refuted by prostitutes that are self-employed