What this states is that 26% of men who identify as homosexual or bisexual have had "sexual experiences under the age of 17 with someone 5 years+ older than them" and only 50% of those men stated that their sexual experience was negative.

That means that if your statement holds truth, you're claiming that the "majority" of these men constitutes 13%? That doesn't make sense.

You didn't even read your own article.