I wonder if they realize that reparations is not a "wealth gap" closer but instead is a measure of damages? I also wonder if they realize that damages are measured by assessing what position you are in now versus what position you would have been in had the alleged "harm" (here, slavery) not occurred.

Given the current living conditions of blacks in this country versus their likely countries of origin in Africa, it is likely that American blacks would already be deemed to have received a windfall under any legal reparations scheme.