If US Code defines election day as "The Tuesday next after the 1st Monday in November" - why haven't lawsuits been filed in every state asking that all ballots received after 11:59:59 PM on election day be invalidated?

Is there some precedent I'm unaware of that extends election day? Didn't Alito tell PA to segregate late arriving ballots for this very reason? #StopTheSteal

https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/2/7

If US Code defines election day as "The Tuesday next after the 1st Monday in November" - why haven't lawsuits been filed in every state asking that all ballots received after 11:59:59 PM on election day be invalidated?

https://uscode.house.gov/view.xhtml?req=(title:2%20section:7%20edition:prelim)