So in the supreme court response, the court says

Texas has not demonstrated a judicially cognizable interest in the manner in which another State conducts its elections

What does this term "judicially cognizable interest" mean? I thought Texas already demonstrated this - if other states can just change voting laws without going through state legislatures, then those elections can and will unfairly dilute/ affect the votes from other states who abided by the rules for changing voting laws.